Understanding the Basics of LAW:

Common Sense is the Basis for the Common Law:

Having dealt with the likes of legalistic fundamentalism for years, - one of the epiphanies I experienced that freed me from their pained thinking was when I began to study Law & the principles of Law.  While many of the people who claim to "Believe the Bible" talk a lot, -- the fact is that almost none (I have yet to meet even one - who, fresh out of cemetary, eh, seminary), understands that the very 'Scripture-book' that they virtually worship contains a book of Law (Paul writes that Scripture is given by divine inspiration {God} -- whom the book also calls the [1] Lawgiver & Judge) - so, the rules of legal construction apply (this is part of due process). 

TWO TYPES:
    Laws can be broken down into (2) types.  Defined:

1) Mala in-se: Offenses at common law -- unlawful by their very nature such as murder, or rape.
2) Mala prohibita: Offenses prohibited by statute; I.E: 'No J-walking".
 

What religious zealots often cannot see are the stark difference between these classifications.  With their understanding darkened & their brains switched off, some of the most ignorant & self deprecating premises get voiced.  What is more amazing, is that numerous, corrupt translations of their very own Bible have arisen from this ignorance -- and the commonly repeated mantra of "The Bible being the 'word of God' encompasses the mistranslation too, & a lie becomes repeated as if it was the truth.  The old saying applies: "One judge [translator] lies & another one [zealot] swears to it.  Mistranslation in the Bible?  Notwithstanding the difficulty to translating the original primitive languages -- there are examples of gross violation of translational protocol.  How severe?  How about adding text not even hinted to in the original Scripture: 1st John 5:7-8 in the King James Version is a prime example.  This is what a footnote in the NIV translation has to say about that: "7,8 Late manuscripts of the Vulgate testify in heaven: the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit, and these three are one. And there are three that testify on earth: the (not found in any Greek manuscript before the sixteenth century)"!  On this website, the Scriptures that detail the 'curse' of adding to God's words have been discussed -- and here is an example of that very offense, -- right in the Bible.  Are there more examples of this?  Yes.  However, (2) terms that I specifically want to point out that are fabrications of English -- & NOT part of the original text in any way, shape or form are:
(1) Sodomite
(2) Homosexual

These terms & more are well documented as to their origins & complete lack of textual foundation.  Does this mean I'm "anti-Bible"?  No...I'm just anti-LIE. Popular-Christianity (& I use the term as a cultural description for the luke-warm social-club thingus that pretends to be the Apostolic Creed of today), has devolved to the point where: "Bubba-Baptist Bible-Blowhard" knows John 3:16, and that God Hates Fags (& he's not so sure about John 3:16)..."

  I want to analyze this folly to show it for what it is.  Here's a parallel cite from the NIV, Young's Literal & Greek Bibles: I Corinthians 6:9

NIV-

"neither sexually immoral
 nor idolaters
 nor adulterers
 nor male prostitutes
*nor homosexual offenders
 nor thieves
 nor the greedy
 nor drunkards
 nor slanderers
 nor swindlers
 will inherit the kingdom of God
."
YLT-

"neither whoremongers,
 nor idolaters,
 nor adulterers,
 nor effeminate,
*nor sodomites,
 nor thieves,
 nor covetous,
 nor drunkards,
 nor revilers,
 nor extortioners,
 the reign of God shall inherit.
"    
GREEK-

πόρνοι οὔτε
εἰδωλολάτραι οὔτε
μοιχοὶ οὔτε
μαλακοὶ οὔτε

ἀρσενοκοῖται
 οὔτε *
κλέπται οὔτε
πλεονέκται οὔτε
μέθυσοι οὐ
λοίδοροι οὐχ
ἅρπαγες
βασιλείαν Θεοῦ οὐ κληρονομήσουσι.

Why Greek?  Because that's what the original text was written in, Bubba (Some 15 centuries before King James suckled his first hypocritical abomination.).
A few points of interest immediately visible between the NIV & YLT.  NIV is the later translation.  Notice where the older YLT reads: "Sodomites" -- how the newer NIV says "homosexual offenders".  The Greek word Paul penned is: "
arsenokoitēs" - a term that has many scholars guessing its exact meaning to this day (but not g0ys)!  So: Somehow, "ABUSER" became "SODOMITE" (a term invented in the KJV - DT 23, that should have been translated as "male-prostitute" from the Hebrew "qâdêsh" [Which hints that "Young's Literal" isn't so 'literal' after all]).  Then, the invention of: "SODOMITE" later became "HOMOSEXUAL OFFENDER" - but the very TERM: "HomoSexual" is an INVENTED WORD, - a pseudo-creation of modern psychology by a non-psychologist!  There is a principle of Law that basically says that where doubt exists, the law is uncertain & benefit of the doubt is to be extended to anyone so charged with violations of that questionable law. 

The very foundation of Christianity is one of love and the New Testament makes exceedingly clear that "Love works no ill toward its neighbor - therefore love is the fulfillment of the law." Actions contrary to that are usually self evident; -- And same sex unions are not antagonistic to that principle in themselves. Although any relationship can suffer from wrong motives, Scriptures like Galatians 3:28c make it clear that gender composition cannot be a dividing line.
Also interesting: With the NIV version, a strange dynamic in the wording adds to the doubt of the text's meaning: Does the text forbid "homosexual offenses", or is it condemning people who "offend homosexuals"?  It does list: "homosexual offenders" as those who will not inherit God's kingdom!  By that reading: "Offend a homosexual & go straight to hell"!  Ironic, isn't it.  Overall: it's an example of an incredibly sloppy translation & VOID FOR VAGUENESS under any rational inspection. Yet, fundamentalists on a fishing-expedition will often take vague phrases like this & use them to threaten naive people with -- suggesting that "whatever it might mean ... well that better not be you!".  Once again, we find somebody adding to God's actual words by saying "or even touch it, lest you die"!  The LAW doesn't work that way, & people who make assertions to the contrary are ignorant, evil, or both.  One Christian friend told me in confidence that he did not like the NIV because it was "soft on homosexuality".  In light of corrected theology, --one might argue that this "softness" is a reason to actually LIKE the NIV!

One of the easiest ways to spot a mistranslation however, is by looking at the CONTEXT of a passage.  You see, every category of transgression on the list cited above results in somebody, inevitably being badly treated, abused, swindled or denied justice - when taken in context with other scriptures that cover similar concepts, -- that is, except (1).  How does being a "homosexual" - (even one who may be sexually active with someone) hurt anybody else?  I know of same-gender couples who have been together for years.  They've never had an STI/disease nor given one to anyone else.  Several have been together since high-school & for all we know, may be together until death does them part. In that context, the NIV translation might as well replace the term  HOMOSEXUAL, with "HETEROSEXUAL".  It would be just as meaningless there  - unless, of course, - you've got an 'agenda' (How ironic is that!). Whatever the Greek term might mean, it does NOT translate into a term that by its nature lacks evidence or propensity to create injured parties! Gotcha! SIN - by it's very nature has an inherent propensity to create INJURED PARTIES - yet LESBIANS and G0YS have the LOWEST STATISTICAL INCIDENCES of STD's of ANY SEXUALLY ACTIVE DEMOGRAPHIC! "Mankind abusers" would be a much better guess at a translation. That covers AnalSex and a myriad of other activities that create injured parties in abundance (such as pugilism I.E: boxing / UFC fighting). How are your sports idols holding up?    

Early into this topic, I named two types of laws:

1) Mala inse: Offenses at common law -- unlawful by their very nature such as murder.
2) Mala prohibita: Offenses prohibited by statute; I.E: 'No driving intoxicated".

  • Mala inse laws are self evident.  Do not steal, do not murder, & the like.  The negative repercussions of breaking such laws are visible instantly.  Whether civil or criminal - there is ALWAYS EVIDENCE OF AN INJURED PARTY for such laws to be valid legally.  Read that over and over again until it sinks in. In order for a law to be valid, there MUST, ALWAYS BE EVIDENCE OF AN INJURED PARTY! No Victim, No Crime.

  • Mala prohibita laws are in place to dissuade actions that have high probabilities of eventually harming someone. "Do not drive while intoxicated", is such an example; -- Not because drunk driving in an of itself is harmful, but because it often leads to injury of others.  Traditionally, a valid mala-prohibita law must have certain key properties in order to be legally valid. One such key is that the activity being restricted must be clearly perilous - one that is highly likely to injure someone by exacerbating risk.

    • It is precisely on this key point that the argument can be made to outlaw Anal-Sex. It has clearly been identified by every major health organization as greatly exacerbating risk far higher than all (say "all") other types of "sexual" activity (+5000% more perilous than even 0ral-sex). Furthermore, the recipient of this act is ALWAYS injured because the anus is NOT a genital organ and this type of contact regularly causes well-documented injuries.  And the myriad of diseases this type of contact readily spreads are often incurable and several - fatal. Finally, the time frame between the action and the emergence of the contracted disease/s is long enough so that the victim often cannot connect the causative act with the resulting disease.  This extended delay & seeming-disconnect between cause and effect create the need to make a mala-prohibita law because the cause/effect pair are not obvious.  In other words, if a persons bowels exploded within minutes of having AnalSex, there would be no need for a mala-prohibita statute because the mala-inse nature of the act would be self evident. However, it is possible to be effectively killed by the act of analsex and not realize it for years -because certain diseases take that long to gestate.  AIDS is a prime example (but not the only one) of an STD that can take YEARS to manifest after exposure.  And, of course, a person can have NO SYMPTOMS and still spread the disease! If that's not a proverbial example of being a "zombie"...  Once again - AnalSex is so perilous because these a-symptomatic people can infect others years before they themselves know that they are carriers.  And - because AnalSex is so excellent at spreading STDs, the contagion rate grows explosively-exponentially with no close second.  This is why is exploded into the gay-male community & still plagues many parts of the globe! This aggressively deadly dynamic is why the Torah named the act as a capitol crime! The prohibition may be mala-prohibita in form, but the act of analsex () has been considered a mala-inse act in civilized cultures for millennia.  These reasons are why.

KEY INSERT:

While the issues of "FRAUD" & "TORTS" are not usually considered religious, - but legal in nature; -- G0YS point out (again) that in the Torah - is a book of legal instruction that is extremely thorough.  And, Moses' command against 'Men lying with mankind as he does a woman", - has no symmetrical prohibition against "woman lying with woman as with a man"!  The lack of a reciprocal commandment in a volume of LAW (The Torah is a volume of LAW.) speaks volumes.  Since it is a fundamental principle of law to not go beyond the letter of what is written (inclusio unius est exclusio alterius) -- then it is immediately clear that Moses has no prohibition against "woman lying with women"!  People who try to invoke Moses law to condemn "lesbianism" are lying. I saw televangelist Pat Robertson do this - literally putting words into Moses' pen! Liars abound!
For one: It's a matter if biology. Under Moses law - the only lawful way for a man to "lie" with a woman was to penetrate her via genital means.  Throw your Karma-Sutra away.  Since women have proper anatomy to be penetrated; - There is defined the 'natural use'.  However, if a man was to lie with a man as with a woman under Moses law - then the man would be, by definition - penetrating a man.  Since a man has no appropriate anatomy with which to be penetrated -- then the back hole (anus) becomes the forbidden target.  Under Moses law - it is also unlawful to come into contact with human feces.  What would a penis inside a rectum be in contact with? Are we learning yet? 

A fundamental principle within the Torah is what is commonly known as EQUITY LAW. This means that the punishment is in proportion with the crime. This principle is precisely what the term "Eye for eye, tooth for tooth, hand for hand, foot for foot, life for life" means. Equity. Notice the principle does not say "Life for tooth" or "Eye for foot". Neither does it say "Life for kiss" or "Hand for hug". But those INequitable assertions are precisely what people who say that the Torah condemns same-gender-intimacy - are making!  History will remember the so-called "church" of the 20th century as a number of groups all horribly afraid that two people of the same gender were cuddling on a park-bench somewhere.  It's the goal of the g0ys movement to cure such foolishness while making crystal clear exactly WHAT was actually forbidden by the text and precisely WHY! The WHY matters! The WHY locks perfectly into the overall principle of EQUITY. The WHY makes perfect sense! The "WHY" describes a mala-inse act! And the "WHY" is precisely what apostate "churches" disregard - which leads them to disregarding the "WHAT" as well. There seems to be no shortage of an ever growing number of "libertine churches" that want to open their doors to ANY SEX ACT under the guise of "tolerance", "inclusiveness" & being "progressive". Since "REPENTANCE FROM ACTS THAT LEAD TO DEATH" is a prerequisite for obedience to the Gospel - such churches are clearly FRAUDS - implying that God is petty, arbitrary & archaic while they simultaneously become the object of Paul's warning in Romans 1 where he plainly states: "Although they know God’s righteous decree that those who do such things deserve death, they not only continue to do these very things but also approve of those who practice them."! Are you paying attention MCC?

G0YS examine & unfold the law of Moses to correct & expose (in its light) lying, religious prejudices (that misquote Moses) against same gender attractions that many, many people have been oppressed by for their entire lives. This corrected understanding of the specifics of Moses' Law also reframes Romans chapter 1 & shows Paul's expose against ungodliness not to be one against women with women or men with men; - But against women and men having anal sex - regardless of the gender composition of the pair Again: Here's WHY!
The concept of "same-gender-attracted" was generally a consideration because men were understood to be ambisexual - & every honest Rabbi KNEW about the dynamics of friendships like David & Jonathan's (well before either was born) -- because what was written about their relationship is astonishingly common to man anyhow!
Due to the Hebrew man's right to contract at his coming of age - there was nothing to stop 2 Hebrew men from making covenant with each other & within those covenants expressing love & mutual care for each other's family.  Such have a clearly understood fundamental legal right to self determination & the mingling of their affairs with whom they choose. Unless a 3rd party has a legal interest (as would be the case of a father of a BRIDE) - nobody has the authority to encumber a contract made in good faith between two men (Repeat that until it sinks in)!  If two men of legal age fell in love & wanted to merge their lives; - They simply DID IT (no permission-slip required). Two self-determining beings made in God's image wouldn't ask for permission for what is a fundamental right of contract!    This is precisely what David & Jonathan illustrated with their mutual love for each other & subsequent familial covenants; -- Which is another legal reason HOW the kingdom of Saul became David's; - & WHY David was able to probate from it to Jonathan's son Mephibosheth; -& also was the legal basis for David's adoption of Mephibosheth & his family into David's.  It is all in the record of David's love-covenant with Prince Jonathan. READ THE ACCOUNT. Being LAX will not save you from judgment on the matter! 

Peter specifically said that people who did not understand legal fundamentals would misread Paul's writings (to the detriment of many) & this is precisely what has happened in reference to Romans chapter 1 and ALL OCCURRENCES where the term "HOMOSEXUAL" or equivalent occurs in translations of the Scripture. 

All other factors considered and absent the act of AnalSex, there is simply no compelling legal reason to forbid groups such as lesbians and g0ys.  By their natures, both groups are much, much less likely to catch or spread STDs than the population at large.  And this is where religious zealots who condemn "homosexuality" show their stark ignorance of law, Leviticus, and miserably fail the requirements of a wise presbyter or judge. Because to say that "God forbids same-gender intimacy" is to imply that God is an arbitrary rule-maker without needing to show-cause. And because God cannot LIE, He would not misrepresent the nature of reality by creating a meaningless commandment that in itself protects men from nothing.  And for "ministers" to incorrectly cite Scripture that has already been proven to have been mistranslated shows ignorance or intentional dishonesty.  And who would they start killing to keep their forged commandment? Consider that question carefully. By their own lame standard: wo/men merely laying together is a "capital crime".  Do we go through the boy-scout camp and execute all the boys sharing tents? Girl-scouts too?   After all ... they're "laying together".  Or perhaps they'll opt to kill only those same-gender couples that are laying together and seem to be "enjoying it"?  Perhaps if they kill only the same gender couples who have been seen kissing or holding hands in public? What about King David & Jonathan?  They kissed a lot! This slippery-slope of sloppy theology soon exposes itself as an excuse to commit murder indiscriminately and without a shred of just-cause demonstrated - (not that these lazy, evil, religious hell-spawn understand that legal principle, either). I am quite certain that the likes of Islam will become God's warning of a merciless judge to eventually enforce their dishonest scriptural citations with a ruthless candor - so that those who sowed this wind of murderous indiscretion in the name of Judaic-Christian theology will pay the price of spreading such a deadly, indiscriminate lie with the loss of their own future progeny. God will not be mocked. The bodies of Pastor-poison-pew's descendents will pile high into the future as the payment for his lies come due - for such men incite a double-portion of God's wrath against them, -so just as they shut up the Kingdom of God in Men's faces - so shall they be ensnared in their own devices!         

According to the Scripture, Lucifer is a liar, thief and murderer.  And the 1st words he is recorded saying are those one that expanded the scope of the commandment of God: "Now the serpent was more crafty than any beast of the field which the LORD God had made. And he said to the woman, "Indeed, has God said, 'You shall not eat from any tree of the garden '?" - Gen 3:1.
It is for such reasons that Rabbi's bind such commandments to the very letter of the law and it is why every Rabbi knows that the act being forbidden in Scriptures such as Leviticus 20:13 and 18:22 is specifically, AnalSex[.]  And this is also why there is NO commandment in the Torah forbidding woman laying with woman!  Lacking the means to commit Analsex with each other, there is no need for a statute; -& law being what it is, -it is unlawful to apply a commandment intended by the letter for men and use it to prosecute women! Doing that is in itself
a capitol crime in the Torah! However, because contact with human dung is toebah (unclean/abomination) in the Torah, men committing AnalSex with women is presumed to be illegal, too (And THAT is what Paul is talking about in Romans 1:26 which is precisely HOW they receive the "penalty WITHIN" themselves...)! Anally Injected Death Sentence!
It is written: "Do not add to the LORD's words, lest He rebuke you and prove you a liar." - Pr 30:6 GVT  
It is written: "I warn everyone who hears the words of the prophecy of this book: if anyone adds to them, God will add to him the plagues described in this book." - Rev 22:18

The primary, broad sweeping theme of New Testament Christianity is a command to:

1) Love God
2) Love People 

...END OF LIST. (Looks like Judge Moore's big, heavy courthouse monument with 10 commandments may have been 8 commandments too heavy!)

See, a perpetual attitude of LOVE automatically self-governs the individual because you can't be acting in a spirit of love while you're stealing from somebody.  You can't be acting in an attitude of love while you're encouraging the breaking of personal vows (yours or somebody else's).  You're not acting in an attitude of love if you're using deception within the body of a contract or statute to ensnare another.  You're not acting in an attitude of love while driving drunk. You're not acting in love if you're spreading disease. 

If God has said: "Mala-Prohibita man w. man & woman w. woman" ... Then, at what point does the act produce results that cause grievous harm.  At what point does the proverbial 'drunk' - 'run over the child'?  At what point does the innocent's blood get shed?  Obviously, no double standards are allowed when answering this.  One cannot reason: "They might spread a disease!", IF - it is also true that a "MAN & WOMAN" might spread disease in same or greater degree. Some might argue "They can't reproduce!" Well then, perhaps all mixed-gender couples beyond childbearing years, or those who cannot bear children in their prime should be separated!  Since when is fertility a prerequisite for pair-bonding?  And so it will go: From a premise, - to a test with a mixed couple; --  & then tell us please: OTHER THAN THE WELL DOCUMENTED PERILS OF ANALSEX ... WHERE IS THE CRIME COMMITTED THAT IS WORTHY OF DEATH - AS SO MANY RELIGIOUS PEOPLE MINDLESSLY ASSERT THAT GOD HAS SAID???

A rule for the sake of a rule?  Perhaps if one's a fool...

To Summarize: