Common Sense is the basis for
the Common Law:
Having dealt with the likes of
legalistic fundamentalism for years, - one of the epiphanies I
experienced that freed me from their pained thinking was when I began
to study Law & the principles of Law. While many of the people
who claim to "Believe the Bible" talk a lot, -- the fact is that very few
(I have yet to meet even one), understand that the very 'rule-book'
they worship is itself a book of Law (Paul writes that Scripture is
given by divine inspiration {God} -- whom the book also calls the [1]
Lawgiver & Judge) so the rules of legal construction apply.
TWO TYPES:
Laws can be broken down into (2) types. Defined:
1) Mala prohibita:
Offenses prohibited by statute; I.E: 'No J-walking".
2) Mala in se: Offenses at common law -- unlawful by
their very nature such as murder, or rape.
What religious zealots often cannot see
is the stark difference between these classifications. With
their understanding darkened & their brains switched off, some of the
most ignorant & self deprecating premises get voiced. What is
more amazing, is that corrupt translations of their very own Bible
have arisen from this ignorance -- and the commonly repeated mantra of
"The Bible being the 'word of God' encompasses the mistranslation & a
lie becomes repeated as if it was the truth. The old saying
applies: "One judge [translator] lies & another one [zealot] swears to
it. Mistranslation in the Bible? Notwithstanding the
difficulty to translating the original primitive languages -- there
are examples of gross violation of translational protocol. How
severe? How about adding text not even hinted to in the original
Scripture: 1st John 5:7-8 in the King James Version is a prime
example. This is what a footnote in the NIV translation has to
say about that: "7,8 Late manuscripts of the
Vulgate testify in heaven: the Father, the Word and the Holy Spirit,
and these three are one. And there are three that testify on earth:
the (not found in any Greek manuscript before the sixteenth century)"!
On this website, the Scriptures that discuss the 'curse' of adding to
God's words have been discussed -- and here is an example of that very
offense, -- right in the Bible. Are there more examples of this?
Yes. However, (2) terms that I specifically want to point out
that are fabrications of English -- not part of the
original text in any way, shape or form are:
(1) Sodomite
(2) Homosexual
These terms & more are well documented as to their origins & complete
lack of textual foundation. Does this mean I'm "anti-Bible"?
No...I'm just anti-LIE. Popular-Christianity (& I use the term as a
cultural description for the thing in the West that pretends to be the
Apostolic Creed of today), has devolved to the point where: "Bubba-Bible
knows John 3:16, and that God Hates Fags (&
he's not so sure about John 3:16)..."
I want to analyze this folly to show it
for what it is. Here's a parallel cite from the NIV, Young's
Literal & Greek
Bibles: I Corinthians 6:9
NIV-
"neither sexually immoral
nor idolaters
nor adulterers
nor male prostitutes
*nor homosexual offenders
nor thieves
nor the greedy
nor drunkards
nor slanderers
nor swindlers
will inherit the kingdom of God." |
YLT-
"neither whoremongers,
nor idolaters,
nor adulterers,
nor effeminate,
*nor sodomites,
nor thieves,
nor covetous,
nor drunkards,
nor revilers,
nor extortioners,
the reign of God shall inherit."
|
GREEK-
πόρνοι οὔτε εἰδωλολάτραι οὔτε μοιχοὶ οὔτε μαλακοὶ οὔτε
ἀρσενοκοῖται
οὔτε κλέπται οὔτε πλεονέκται οὔτε μέθυσοι οὐ λοίδοροι οὐχ
ἅρπαγες βασιλείαν Θεοῦ οὐ κληρονομήσουσι. |
Why Greek? Because that's what
the original text was written in, Bubba (Some 15 centuries before
King James suckled his first abomination.).
A few points of interest
immediately visible between the NIV & YLT. NIV is the later
translation. Notice where the older YLT reads: "Sodomites" --
how the newer NIV says "homosexual offenders". The Greek term
is: "arsenokoitēs"
- a term that has scholars guessing it's exact meaning! Perhaps:
"abuser of themselves with mankind".
My point is obvious: Somehow, "ABUSER" became "SODOMITE" (a term
invented in the KJV - DT 23, that should have been translated as
"male-prostitute" from the Hebrew "qâdêsh"
[Which hints that "Young's Literal" isn't so 'literal' after all]). Then, the invention of: "SODOMITE" later became
"HOMOSEXUAL OFFENDER" - but the very TERM: "HomoSexual" is an INVENTED
WORD, - a pseudo-creation of modern psychology by a non-psychologist!
There is a principle of Law that basically
says that where doubt exists, the law is uncertain & benefit of the
doubt is to be extended to anyone so charged with violations of that
law.
From the concepts of the original text,
I would suggest that the word "arsenokoitēs"
more likely forbids professional boxing & like activities, or maybe
practices like sadomasochism (especially considering the concept of
mutual ABUSE - I.E: (anal-play) that might tend to spread
disease or cause other forms of harm.). However, basic same sex
intimacy is simply not forbidden by the text.
The very foundation of Christianity is one of
love and the New testament makes exceedingly clear that "Love works
no ill toward its neighbor - therefore love is the fulfillment of the
law." Actions contrary to that are usually self evident; --
And same
sex unions are not antagonistic to that principle in themselves.
Although any relationship can suffer from wrong motives, Scriptures
like Galatians 3:28 make it clear that gender cannot be a dividing
line.
Also interesting: With the NIV version, a strange dynamic in
the wording adds to the doubt of the text's meaning: Does the text forbid "homosexual
offenses", or is it condemning people who "offend homosexuals"?
It does list: "homosexual offenders" as those
who will not inherit God's kingdom! By that reading: "Offend a
homosexual & go straight to hell"! Ironic, isn't it.
Overall: it's an example of an incredibly sloppy translation & VOID FOR VAGUENESS under any rational
inspection. Yet, rabid fundamentalists take vague phrases like this &
use them to threaten naive people with -- suggesting that "whatever it might
mean ... well that better not be you!". Once again, we find
somebody saying "or even touch it, lest you die"! The
LAW
doesn't work that way, & people who make assertions to the contrary are
ignorant, evil, or both.
One of the easiest ways to spot the
mistranslation however is by looking at the CONTEXT of the
passage. You see, every category of transgression on the list
results in somebody inevitably being badly treated, abused, swindled
or denied justice - when taken in context with other scriptures that
cover similar concepts, -- that is, except (1). How does
being a "homosexual" - (even one who may be sexually active with
someone) hurt anybody else? I know same-gender couples who have
been together for years. They've never had an STD-disease nor
given one to anyone else. Several have been together since
high-school & for all we know, may be together until death does them
part. In that context, the NIV might as well replace the term
HOMOSEXUAL, with "HETEROSEXUAL". It would be just as meaningless
there - unless, of course, - you've got an 'agenda' (How
ironic is that!).
Early into this topic, I named two
types of laws:
1) Mala prohibita:
Offenses prohibited by statute; I.E: 'No driving intoxicated".
2) Mala in se: Offenses at common law -- unlawful by
their very nature such as murder.
Mala in se laws are self
evident. Do not steal, do not murder, & the like. The
negative repercussions of breaking such laws are visible instantly.
Mala prohibita laws are in place to dissuade 'states of mind' that
have high probabilities of eventually harming someone. "Do not drive while
intoxicated", is such an example; -- Not because drunk driving in an
of itself is harmful, but because it inevitably leads to tragedy of
the driver &/ others.
The primary, broad sweeping theme of
New Testament Christianity is a command to:
1) Love God
2) Love People
...END OF LIST. (Looks like Judge Moore's big, heavy courthouse
monument with 10 commandments may have been 8 commandments too
heavy!)
See, an attitude of LOVE automatically
self-governs the individual because you can't be acting in a spirit of
love while you're stealing from somebody. You can't be acting in
an attitude of love while you're encouraging the breaking of contracts
or personal vows (yours or somebody else's). You're not acting
in an attitude of love while driving drunk. You're not acting in love
if you're spreading disease.
And you're not acting in an attitude of love when you despise the
highest authority because you somehow think God is "unjust" or
'imaginary'. Consider, if there is 'no God', then laws are
meaningless -- as there is no ultimate source of accountability.
The belief that there is no God is to admit that evil people who lived
in luxury & slipped peacefully off into 'death' while asleep 'got
away with it'! This may be too metaphysical for some to
grasp, but extend your mind to the following notion: If LAW exists
apart of the individual, then it's counterpart, JUSTICE must also
exist apart of the individual. Therefore, if LAW & JUSTICE exist
independently of man, then man will ultimately be subject to them,
-- if indeed Law & Justice are what the models hold as truth.
Therefore, if the present world seems to be somewhat devoid of
"justice", but we know that it exists in perfection
somewhere; -- Then it must be administered
someplace beyond our perceptual acuity. Evil men get away with
nothing. But, neither will you. Have you seen
'eternity's witness protection program'? But I digress...
If God has said:
Mala-Prohibita "Man &
man"-"woman & woman" ... at
what point does the act produce results that cause harm. At
what point does the proverbial 'drunk' - 'run over the child'? At what point does
the innocent's blood get shed? Obviously, no double standards
are allowed when answering this. One cannot reason: "They might spread disease!",
IF - it is also true that a "MAN & WOMAN" might spread disease. Some
might argue "They can't reproduce!" Well then, perhaps all
mixed-gender couples beyond childbearing years, or those who cannot
bear children in their prime should be separated! Since when is
fertility a prerequisite for pair-bonding? And so it will go:
from premise, - to a test with a mixed couple; -- & then tell us
please:
WHERE IS THE CRIME COMMITTED THAT
IS WORTHY OF DEATH AS FUNDAMENTALISTS ASSERT GOD HAS SAID???
A rule for the sake of a rule? Perhaps if one's a fool...
Changes brought
about by the New Covenant:
Paul affirmed
that all foods were acceptable in the new
covenant
(Rom 14:14. An excellent illustration on his part! See, in the Old
testament, eating shellfish for example, was considered an "ABOMINATION"
(The favorite word used by fundamentalists to describe 'Ho-Mo-Sekshuals").
From casual observation, it's obvious that you don't get more intimate
with something than to eat it and incorporate it into your own body.
That lobster stew is now part of your blood & brain! (You
ABOMINATION! - N0T!) Therefore, if all foods are
'clean', and under this covenant; -- Then I can eat an 'abominable lobster'
without becoming 'defiled' by it! Likewise I should certainly
be able to tongue-wrestle with my like-gender partner -- because: If
putting an ABOMINATION into my mouth & swallowing can't defile me; --
Then putting an ABOMINATION into my mouth & swallowing, can't defile
me!
I know what some of you are thinking: How ABOMINABLE of me to write
that! It's the dawn of a wonderful heresy!
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